Jammu & Kashmir Prosecuting officer Mock Test - 2 | English Medium

JAMMU AND KASHMIR PROSECUTING OFFICER

MOCK TEST-2

1. What is the consequence of a trial proceeding without the mandatory sanction under Section 19 of the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988?

a. The trial is valid if the accused is convicted.

b. The court cannot take cognizance; the proceedings are void.

c. Sanction can be obtained at the time of judgment.

d. It is a mere technical irregularity

2. Which case established that the demand for a bribe can be proved by "circumstantial evidence" if the complainant is dead or unavailable under the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988?

a. Neeraj Dutta v. State (Govt. of NCT of Delhi).

b. P. Nallammal v. State.

c. Dileepbhai Nanubhai Sanghani v. State of Gujarat.

d. Lalita Kumari v. State of UP

3. Under Section 20 of the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988, if it is proved that a public servant accepted an undue advantage, the Court:

a. Must presume it was a motive or reward for public duty (unless proved otherwise).

b. May presume it was a gift.

c. Must wait for the prosecution to prove the intent separately.

d. Must dismiss the case if the amount is less than ₹1,000

4. Section 7A of the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988 (inserted in 2018) relates to:

a. Bribery of foreign officials

b. Influence of public servant by corrupt/illegal means

c. Property forfeiture

d. Investigation by CBI

5. "Public duty" is defined under which section of the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988?

a. Section 2(b)

b. Section 2(d)

c. Section 7

d. Section 13

6. The PC Act, 1988 extends to:

a. Whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir

b. Only Union Territories

c. Whole of India and all citizens of India outside India

d. Only Central Government employees

7. Who does the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act 1967 apply to from the following?

a. Citizens of India outside India;

b. Persons in the service of the Government

c. Persons on ships and aircrafts, registered in India

d. All of the above

8. According to Section 5(2), if a vacancy (other than a temporary absence) occurs in the Tribunal, what happens to the ongoing proceedings?

a. The proceedings must start fresh (de novo).

b. The proceedings are stayed indefinitely.

c. The proceedings may be continued from the stage at which the vacancy is filled.

d. The proceedings are transferred to the nearest High Court.

9. Is the court required to withhold the identity of a witness in every UAPA case?

a. Yes, it is a mandatory rule for all terrorism trials.

b. No, it is an exceptional measure used only if the court is satisfied the witness's life is in danger.

c. No, it only applies to foreign witnesses.

d. Yes, if the NIA requests it.

10. To be charged under Section 39(1)(c) of UAPA, for addressing a meeting, what must be the person's objective?

a. To criticize the government's economic policy.

b. To encourage support for a terrorist organization or to further its activities.

c. To discuss historical events related to an association.

d. To provide legal advice to members of the organization

11. Following the 2019 amendment, Section 36 of UAPA, also allows for the denotification of:

a. Political parties

b. Foreign diplomats

c. Individuals whose names are included in the Fourth Schedule

d. NGOs receiving foreign funding

12. Under Section 32 of the UAPA, what is the legal status of a property transfer made after an order is issued under Section 25 (seizure/attachment)?

a. It is valid if the buyer paid the market price.

b. It is considered null and void for the purpose of forfeiture proceedings.

c. It is only void if the transfer was to a family member.

d. It requires a special NOC from the local police.

13. The court may also permit service of summons by the plaintiff in addition to service of summons by the court by Order 5, and of CPC.

a. Rule 9

b. Rule 9A

c. Rule 10

d. Rule 11

14. Civil Procedure Code—Which one of the following is correct?

a. Appellate Court shall have power to determine a case finally

b. Appellate Court shall not remand a case

c. Appellate Court shall not have a power to frame issue and refer them for trial

d. Appellate Court shall not have power to take additional evidence

15. Which Section of the Civil Procedure Code grant exemption to Members of Legislatures from arrest and detention under civil process?

a. Section 80

b. Section 134

c. Section 135A

d. Section 132

16. A Subordinate Court passes an interlocutory order in a suit for partition. The defendant, aggrieved by the order, realizes that the order, if allowed to stand, would cause a failure of justice, yet no appeal lies against it. The defendant decides to file a Revision Petition under Section 115 CPC. In which of the following scenarios is the High Court strictly prohibited from varying or reversing the order?

a. Where the subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law.

b. Where the order is of such a nature that, if it had been made in favour of the defendant, it would not have finally disposed of the suit or other proceedings.

c. Where the subordinate court has failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested.

d. Where the subordinate court acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity.

17. An application for amendment of pleadings is filed under:

a. Order 6 Rule 17

b. Order 6 Rule 5

c. Order 38 Rule 5

d. Order 21 Rule 1

18. Under Section 104 of the Code of Civil Procedure an appeal can be preferred against

a. An order under Section 91 to refuse permission to institute suit

b. An order under Section 95 for compensation

c. An order under Section 92

d. All of the above

19. Time for instituting a suit can be enlarged by invoking which of the following provisions?

a. Section 151 C.P.C.

b. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963

c. Section 148 C.P.C.

d. None of the above.

20. 'D', a defendant, wishes to raise a counterclaim against 'P', the plaintiff, in a suit for specific performance. Under Order VIII of the CPC, which of the following statements is incorrect regarding 'D's' ability to file this counterclaim?

a. The counterclaim must be a claim which could have been the subject of a separate independent suit against the plaintiff.

b. The cause of action for the counterclaim must have arisen before 'D' filed their initial written statement.

c. 'D' can raise a counterclaim for a claim exceeding the pecuniary limits of the court's jurisdiction if the court permits.

d. 'P' has the right to file a written statement in answer to 'D's' counterclaim, and the rules applicable to written statements by a defendant shall apply.

21. The plaintiff wants to claim some reliefs in a subsequent suit. He requires leave under which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure?

a. Section 80(2)

b. Section 20

c. Order II Rule 3

d. Order I Rule 8.

22. A lets a house to B at a yearly rent of Rs. 10,000. The rent for the whole of the years 2006 to 2008 is due and unpaid. A sues B in 2009 only for the rent due for 2007.

a. A can afterwards sue B for the rent due for 2006 only

b. A can afterwards sue B for the rent due for 2008 only

c. A can afterwards sue B for the rent due both for 2006 and 2008

d. A cannot afterwards sue B for the rent due for 2006 or 2008

23. Which of the following is a "latent defect" the seller is bound to disclose under Section 55 of TPA?

a. A visible crack in the wall

b. A defect in the title which the buyer could not discover with ordinary care

c. The presence of a tenant

d. The color of the paint

24. Section 27 of TPA deals with the "Doctrine of Acceleration." This doctrine means:

a. Speeding up the registration process

b. An interest created in favour of one person taking effect on the failure of a prior interest

c. Immediate transfer of possession

d. Payment of debt before the due date

25. A lease of immovable property for "manufacturing purposes" is presumed to be:

a. From month to month

b. From year to year

c. For 10 years

d. For 99 years

26. Under Section 53, a transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay creditors is:

a. Void

b. Voidable at the option of the creditor so defeated

c. Valid

d. Illegal

27. Which section of TPA incorporates the principle of "Nemo dat quod non habet"?

a. Section 41

b. Section 48

c. Section 51

d. Section 35

28. Under Section 58(e) of TPA, an "English Mortgage" involves:

a. Simple promise to pay

b. Absolute transfer of property to the mortgagee with a proviso to re-transfer

c. Delivery of title deeds only

d. Right to enjoy the usufruct

29. "Marshalling of Securities" is provided under which section of TPA?

a. Section 56

b. Section 81

c. Section 92

d. Section 53

30. In 2025, 'X' executes a registered sale deed transferring his property to 'Y' for ₹50 Lakhs. On the same day and at the same time, 'Y' executes a separate registered agreement promising to re-transfer the property to 'X' if 'X' repays the amount within five years. 'X' remains in possession of the property. What is the legal status of this transaction under the Transfer of Property Act?

a. It is a valid "Mortgage by Conditional Sale" because both documents were executed simultaneously as part of the same transaction.

b. It is an "Anomalous Mortgage" because the combined effect of the two documents creates a security for a debt.

c. It is an absolute sale with a personal "Covenant for Repurchase," and 'X' has no right of redemption under mortgage law.

d. It is a "Simple Mortgage" because 'X' retained possession of the property.

31. Under Section 41, a transfer by an "ostensible owner" is valid if the transferee:

a. Paid no consideration but acted in good faith

b. Paid consideration and acted in good faith after taking reasonable care

c. Was aware of the real owner's title

d. Took the property as a gift

32. The "Doctrine of Part Performance" (Section 53A of TPA) is available only:

a. As a sword to enforce a right

b. As a shield to protect possession

c. For oral contracts

d. For movable property

33. In 2018, 'A' fraudulently concealed a title deed to prevent 'B' from knowing he had a right to certain property. 'B' suspected foul play in 2020 but did not investigate. In 2022, 'B' finally gained the means to compel the production of the document through a court order. According to Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963, when does the limitation period for 'B' to file a suit begin?

a. In 2018, when the fraudulent concealment actually took place.

b. In 2020, when 'B' first suspected the fraud.

c. In 2022, when 'B' first had the means of producing or compelling the production of the concealed document.

d. One year after the fraud was discovered, provided the court grants an extension.

34. When a fresh period of limitation begins due to an acknowledgement, it is called:

a. Condonation

b. Computation

c. Renewal of limitation

d. Prescription

35. Which of the following scenarios would NOT qualify for the exclusion of time under Section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963, even if the plaintiff acted in good faith?

a. A plaintiff filed a suit in a Civil Court that was later found to be barred by the principle of res judicata from a previous suit between the same parties.

b. A plaintiff filed a suit in a court where the valuation of the suit property exceeded the court's pecuniary jurisdiction.

c. A plaintiff filed a suit in a court that lacked territorial jurisdiction over the subject matter.

d. A plaintiff filed a suit that was dismissed because it suffered from a "misjoinder of causes of action."

36. The maximum extension allowed for a person under legal disability after the disability ceases (Section 8) is:

a. 1 year

b. 3 years

c. 12 years

d. 6 months

37. In which of the following scenarios would the "Continuous running of time" principle under Section 9 be suspended, assuming the cause of action has already accrued and time has already begun to run?

a. The plaintiff, who was of sound mind when the cause of action accrued, becomes insane two months into the limitation period.

b. The sole plaintiff dies three months after the cause of action arises, leaving behind only a minor heir.

c. Letters of administration to the estate of a creditor are granted to his debtor.

d. The defendant leaves the country to reside in a foreign territory for the remainder of the limitation period.

38. Which of the following is NOT a "Legal Disability" under Section 6 of LIMITATION ACT?

a. Minority

b. Insanity

c. Idiocy

d. Insolvency

39. How many Chapters and Sections does the POCSO Act, 2012 contain?

a. 7 Chapters and 40 Sections

b. 9 Chapters and 46 Sections

c. 10 Chapters and 50 Sections

d. 8 Chapters and 42 Sections

40. Which section defines "Penetrative Sexual Assault"?

a. Section 3

b. Section 5

c. Section 7

d. Section 9

41. Under Section 4 of the POCSO Act, 2012 (as amended in 2019), which of the following statements regarding the punishment for "Penetrative Sexual Assault" is incorrect?

a. The absolute minimum punishment for any offence under Section 4 is now rigorous imprisonment for 10 years.

b. If the victim is 15 years old, the minimum mandatory punishment is 20 years of rigorous imprisonment.

c. The maximum punishment under Section 4(1) can extend to imprisonment for the remainder of that person's natural life.

d. Section 4(2) empowers the court to award the death penalty if the victim is below 16 years of age.

42. Statements of a child victim should ideally be recorded by:

a. A male police officer

b. A woman police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector

c. The District Magistrate only

d. A private doctor

43. A Special Public Prosecutor under POCSO must have at least how many years of practice as an advocate?

a. 5 years

b. 7 years

c. 10 years

d. 15 year

44. The "Skin-to-Skin" contact judgment, which was later set aside by the Supreme Court, originated from which High Court?

a. Delhi High Court

b. Bombay High Court

c. Madras High Court

d. Allahabad High Court

45. When did the Information Technology Act, 2000, officially come into force?

a. 15 August 2000

b. 17 October 2000

c. 26 January 2001

d. 1 June 2000

46. In which year was a major amendment made to the IT Act 2000, significantly expanding its scope for cybercrime?

a. 2005

b. 2008

c. 2011

d. 2015

47. Section 67A specifically deals with punishment for publishing:

a. Child pornography

b. Sexually explicit acts in electronic form

c. Offensive messages

d. Stolen data

48. Penalty for "Breach of Confidentiality and Privacy" is under IT ACT:

a. Section 70

b. Section 72

c. Section 74

d. Section 75

49. Regarding the jurisdictional interplay and appointment mandates for a Special Court under the POCSO Act, 2012, which of the following scenarios is legally accurate?

a. If a district lacks a designated Court of Session under Section 28, the High Court may exercise original jurisdiction to try POCSO offences until a notification is issued.

b. A Court of Session designated as a Special Court under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005 automatically serves as the Special Court under the POCSO Act by virtue of a legal fiction.

c. Under Section 32, the State Government must appoint a Special Public Prosecutor for every Special Court, provided they have practiced as an advocate for at least five years.

d. The Special Court’s mandate to complete a trial within one year under Section 35(2) is a mandatory provision that, if breached, results in the automatic acquittal of the accused.

50. Under Section 2(1)(d) of the POCSO Act, a "Child" is defined as any person below the age of:

a. 14 years

b. 16 years

c. 18 years

d. 21 years

51. On which date did the NDPS Act, 1985 come into force?

a. 14th November 1985

b. 2nd October 1985

c. 26th January 1986

d. 1st April 1986

52. Financing illicit traffic and harboring offenders is punishable under NDPS ACT:

a. Section 27A

b. Section 21

c. Section 24

d. Section 31

53. Which of the following is specifically EXCLUDED from the definition of "cannabis (hemp)" under Section 2(iii) of the NDPS Act?

a. Charas (separated resin)

b. Ganja (flowering or fruiting tops)

c. Bhang (leaves and seeds of the plant)

d. Any mixture of charas or ganja

54. Under Section 42 of NDPS ACT, if an officer receives information and takes it down in writing, within what timeframe must a copy be sent to their immediate official superior?

a. 24 hours

b. 48 hours

c. 72 hours

d. Immediately, or within 72 hours under specific exemptions

55. What is the maximum duration for which a Magistrate can authorize the detention (remand) of an accused in an NDPS case involving commercial quantity before the matter is sent to a Special Court?

a. 15 days

b. 60 days

c. 90 days

d. 180 days

56. Section 64A of the NDPS Act provides immunity from prosecution to:

a. Government informants

b. Addicts volunteering for treatment

c. Juvenile offenders

d. Foreign nationals who are first-time offenders

57. The 'Rule of Law' as interpreted in India includes:

1. Absence of arbitrary power.

2. Equality before the law.

3. Constitution is the result of the rights of individuals (Dicey’s 3rd principle).

Options:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

58. The Seventh Schedule's "Concurrent List" was inspired by the Constitution of:

a. Canada

b. Australia

c. USA

d. South Africa

59. Which of the following are 'Constitutional Bodies'?

1. National Commission for Scheduled Castes

2. NITI Aayog

3. GST Council

4. Central Vigilance Commission

Options:

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 2 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

60. Under Article 368, an amendment to change the 'Election of the President' requires:

a. Special majority of Parliament only.

b. Simple majority of Parliament and ratification by half the states.

c. Special majority of Parliament and ratification by half the states.

d. Simple majority of Parliament only.

61. The 'Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India' (2017) case is primarily associated with:

a. Right to Education

b. Right to Privacy

c. Right to Property

d. Freedom of Speech

62. Which of the following is true regarding the 'Joint Sitting' of the Houses?

a. It is presided over by the Chairman of Rajya Sabha in the absence of the Speaker.

b. It can be summoned for Constitutional Amendment Bills.

c. The Quorum is 1/10th of the total members of both Houses.

d. It is governed by the Rules of Procedure of Rajya Sabha.

63. The 'Comptroller and Auditor General' (CAG) can be removed from office:

a. At the pleasure of the President.

b. By the President on a recommendation of the Council of Ministers.

c. On the same grounds and manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

d. By the Chief Justice of India.

64. The 'Doctrine of Colorable Legislation' means:

a. The legislature cannot do indirectly what it cannot do directly.

b. Laws must be colorful and descriptive.

c. Only the Union can make laws on the State List during an emergency.

d. The Judiciary can legislate when there is a vacuum.

65. Which Fundamental Right is available ONLY to citizens of India?

a. Article 14

b. Article 21

c. Article 15

d. Article 25

66. With reference to 'Financial Emergency' under Article 360 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. A proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue.

2. Once approved by Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely until it is revoked by the President, without requiring further periodic approvals.

3. While a Financial Emergency is in operation, the President is empowered to issue directions for the reduction of salaries of Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, notwithstanding anything in the Constitution.

4. The satisfaction of the President in declaring a Financial Emergency is final and cannot be questioned in any court on any ground.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. 1, 2, and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1, 3, and 4 only

d. 2, 3, and 4 only

67. Under the BNS, if a driver causes death by rash and negligent driving and escapes without reporting the incident, what is the maximum punishment prescribed under Section 106(2)?

a. Imprisonment for up to 5 years and a fine.

b. Imprisonment for up to 7 years and a fine.

c. Imprisonment for up to 10 years and a fine.

d. Imprisonment for up to 14 years and a fine.

68. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, the offence of 'Sedition' has been:

a. Retained with the same definition as in the IPC.

b. Completely removed from the criminal code.

c. Replaced with a new provision concerning acts that endanger the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.

d. Amended to include only violent acts against the state.

69. Which of the following is a newly introduced punishment under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. Death sentence

b. Imprisonment for life

c. Community service

d. Forfeiture of property

70. Under the BNS, how has the scope of "gender" been expanded in its definition?

a. It now includes only men and women.

b. It includes men, women, and intersex individuals.

c. It includes men, women, and transgender individuals.

d. The definition of gender remains unchanged from the IPC.

71. Under Section 113 of the BNS, 2023, which of the following statements regarding the prosecution of "Terrorist Acts" is CORRECT?

a. All terrorist acts must be exclusively prosecuted under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967.

b. An officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police (SP) has the discretion to decide whether to proceed under the BNS or the UAPA.

c. The BNS definition of a terrorist act excludes "economic security" and "monetary stability," which remain under UAPA.

d. Judicial Magistrate First Class (JMFC) has the final authority to determine the statute for filing the charge sheet in such cases.

72. If a person acts with "good faith," as defined by the BNS, what is a key element of their conduct?

a. The act is done without any intention to harm.

b. The person is unaware of any potential harm.

c. The act is done with due care and attention.

d. The person acts on the advice of a legal expert.

73. What is the general rule under the BNS regarding an act done by a child between seven and twelve years old?

a. The child is never criminally liable.

b. The child is criminally liable if the act is serious.

c. The child is not criminally liable if they have not attained sufficient maturity to understand the nature and consequences of the act.

d. The child is criminally liable but with a lesser punishment.

74. Under the BNS, if a person cause harm by accident while doing a lawful act in a lawful manner, with proper care and caution, what is the legal consequence?

a. The person is guilty of a minor offense.

b. The person is still held responsible for the harm caused.

c. The act is not an offence.

d. The person must pay compensation but is not criminally liable.

75. Under BNS Section 86, the definition of "cruelty" includes which of the following?

a. Any wilful conduct likely to drive a woman to commit suicide.

b. Causing grave injury or danger to the woman's life, limb, or mental health.

c. Harassment intended to coerce the woman or her family to meet unlawful demands.

d. All of the above.

76. In a dowry death case under BNS Section 80, the term "dowry" has the same meaning as defined in which of the following?

a. The Indian Contract Act, 1872

b. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

c. The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961

d. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023

77. Which authority is responsible for ordering maintenance payments under Section 144 of BNSS, 2023?

a. The local police station

b. A Judicial Magistrate of the first class

c. The Central Government

d. The village Panchayat

78. Section 201 of BNSS deals with the territorial jurisdiction of courts for inquiries and trials of which type of offences?

a. Offences committed in a single location.

b. Offences involving dacoity, kidnapping, theft, and related crimes, allowing for the trial to occur where the act or consequences happened.

c. Offences committed by public servants.

d. Offences committed in a specific district.

79. Which chapter of BNSS, 2023 deals with “DISPOSAL OF PROPERTY”?

a. CHAPTER XXXVI

b. CHAPTER XXXV

c. CHAPTER XXXIV

d. CHAPTER XXXVII

80. What is the fundamental change introduced by Section 223 of The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, regarding a Magistrate's power to take cognizance on a complaint?

a. The Magistrate can now take cognizance without examining the complainant.

b. The accused must be given an opportunity to be heard before the Magistrate takes cognizance.

c. The Magistrate must refer every complaint to the police for investigation before proceeding.

d. The power to take cognizance has been shifted from Magistrates to the Sessions Court.

81. What does Section 314 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, deal with?

a. The accused person's right to an advocate.

b. The interpretation of evidence to the accused or their advocate.

c. The process for tendering a pardon to an accomplice.

d. The powers of police to arrest without a warrant.

82. If an accused is charged with three offenses of the same kind that occurred within a 12-month period, can they be tried together in one trial under Section 242 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023?

a. No, each offense must be tried separately.

b. Yes, provided the total number of offenses of the same kind does not exceed five.

c. Yes, provided the total number of offenses of the same kind does not exceed three.

d. Yes, regardless of the number of offenses.

83. Within what timeframe must a Magistrate or police officer forward a body for medical examination in a case under Section 196?

a. As soon as possible, but no specific timeframe.

b. Within twenty-four hours of the death.

c. Within forty-eight hours of the death.

d. Only after the inquiry is completed.

84. If a person states before a Magistrate that they are not willing to make a confession, what is the Magistrate's immediate course of action under Section 183?

a. The Magistrate can compel the person to make the confession.

b. The Magistrate must not authorize the detention of that person in police custody.

c. The Magistrate can only record the statement, not the confession.

d. The Magistrate must inform the investigating officer of the refusal.

85. If an 'ex parte' order is made under Section 145, how long does the affected person have to apply to set it aside (cancel it) for good cause?

a. 7 days

b. 1 month

c. 3 months

d. 1 year

86. According to Section 90 of BNSS, in which situations can a court issue an arrest warrant instead of or in addition to a summons?

a. If there is reason to believe the person has absconded.

b. If the person fails to appear after being summoned.

c. If the offense is punishable by more than 7 years imprisonment.

d. Both a and b.

87. Under BNSS Section 101, upon a complaint made on oath regarding the unlawful detention of a woman or female child, which authority may issue an order for their immediate restoration?

a. The Superintendent of Police

b. The High Court

c. District Magistrate, Sub-divisional Magistrate, or Magistrate of the first class

d. The Central Government.

88. Section 39 of the BSA, 2023, deals with "Opinions of experts". In which situation is the opinion of an expert a relevant fact?

a. On a point of domestic law.

b. On points of foreign law, science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions.

c. On the character of the accused.

d. On the credibility of a witness.

89. Section 36 of the BSA addresses the relevancy and effect of judgments, orders, or decrees other than those mentioned in Section 35. What is the general rule regarding their relevancy?

a. They are never relevant in subsequent proceedings.

b. They are relevant if they relate to matters of a public nature relevant to the inquiry.

c. They are only relevant if all parties in the new suit were also parties in the original suit.

d. They are conclusive proof of the facts stated therein.

90. A judgment in probate jurisdiction that confers a legal character on a person is relevant. What is the effect of such a judgment under Section 35(2) of the BSA?

a. It is suggestive evidence, but not binding.

b. It is not admissible in other courts.

c. It is conclusive proof of that legal character.

d. It is relevant only in the probate court.

91. Section 43 of the BSA makes the opinions of persons relevant on which specific matter?

a. Foreign law and science only.

b. Usages, tenets, or artistic matters.

c. Character of the accused person.

d. Financial solvency of a person.

92. What is the subject matter of Section 50 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

a. Opinions of experts

b. Relevancy of good character in criminal cases

c. Character as affecting damages in civil cases

d. Previous bad character not relevant, except in reply

93. An identification parade conducted by a Judicial Magistrate to identify a person whom a witness saw during a crime is an example of establishing identity under which section of the BSA?

a. Section 7

b. Section 6

c. Section 8

d. Section 9

94. The question is whether a particular letter was dispatched. According to Section 14, which fact would be relevant?

a. The sender's intent to send the letter.

b. The fact that the letter was put in a place where all letters were ordinarily put for dispatch.

c. The fact that the recipient denied receiving the letter.

d. The emotional state of the sender while writing the letter.

95. Under Section 60 of the BSA, when can secondary evidence of a document be given?

a. Only if the judge allows it based on personal discretion.

b. Only if the document is an electronic record.

c. Only in cases specified in the Act (e.g., original is lost, destroyed, or withheld).

d. Always, secondary evidence is equal to primary evidence.

96. Under Section 87 of the BSA, the Court shall presume, unless the contrary is proved, that the information listed in a Digital Signature Certificate is __________.

a. False

b. Misleading

c. Correct

d. Unreliable

97. When a document's language applies partly to one set of facts and partly to another, but not wholly to either, which section allows evidence to be given to show which set of facts it was intended to apply to?

a. Section 97

b. Section 98

c. Section 99

d. Section 100

98. Section 101 of the BSA deals with evidence to explain which kind of characters in a document?

a. Plain and understandable characters

b. Illegible or unintelligible characters, or technical/local/provincial terms

c. Characters written in English only

d. Standard legal terms

99. According to Section 169 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the improper admission or rejection of evidence shall:

a. Be grounds for a new trial or reversal of the decision.

b. Not, of itself, be grounds for a new trial or reversal of the decision.

c. Invalidate the entire trial proceedings from the beginning.

d. Automatically lead to the acquittal of the accused

100. Section 162 of BSA primarily deals with which concept?

a. Leading questions

b. Refreshing memory

c. Expert opinion

d. Corroboration of evidence